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Theorem (Uniqueness of the Infinite Continued Fraction)
Given any irrational number  
\[x\]
  determined from  
\[x\]
  by the continued fraction algorithm converges to  
\[x\]
  and no other finite continued fraction converges to  
\[x\]
.
Proof
Using the continued fraction algorithm, the irrational number  
\[x\]
  produces a sequence of finite continued fractions
\[x=x_1, \; [ a_1, \; x_2 ] , \; [ a_1 , \; a_2, \; x_3 ] , \; [ a_1, \; a_2, \; a_3, \; x_4 ] ,...\]

where  
\[a_n= int(x_n)\]
  and  
\[x_{n+1}= \frac{1}{x_n-a_n}\]
.
To show that the infinite continued fraction has limit  
\[x\]
  let  
\[[ a_1, \; a_2,..., \; a_{2n} ] = \frac{p_k}{q_k}=C_k\]
, the  
\[2n\]
th convergent, then from the properties of the convergents,  
\[\| x -\frac{p_{2n}}{q_{2n+1}} \| \lt | C_{2n}-C_{2n-1} | = \frac{1}{q_{2n} q_{2n-1}} \lt \frac{1}{2n(2n+1)}\]
  hence  
\[C_{2n} \rightarrow x\]
.
We can prove that if  
\[[ a_1. \; a_2,... ], \; [b_1, \; b_2,... ]\]
  have the same value, then they are the same continued fraction by induction.
Let  
\[P(k)\]
  be the statement that  
\[a_k=b_k\]
.  
\[a_1=b_1\]
  since both continued fractions have the same integer part, so  
\[P(1)\]
  is true.
Suppose then that  
\[a_1=b_1, \; a_2=b_2,..., \; a_k=b_k\]
.
\[[ a_1, \; a_2,..., a_k [ a_{k+1},... ] ] = [ b_1, \; b_2,..., b_k [ b_{k+1},... ] ]\]

Hence  
\[a_{k+1}=b_{k+1}\]
  and equality of the continued fractions is true by induction.